Previous Year Question Paper

GDS To MTS Question Paper 2025 Gujarat Circle

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GDS To MTS Question Paper 2025 Gujarat Circle questions and answers

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Question 1

#1001

The working hours of the post offices are generally fixed by the ______ according to the timings given in clause 5 of the Post Office Guide.

A

Head of the Sub Division

B

Head of the Circle

C

Head of the Division

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The working hours of the Post Offices are generally fixed by the Head of the Circle according to the timings given in Clause 5 of the Post Office Guide.

However, the Director-General may extend the working hours of any Post Office up to 8:30 P.M. and keep them open on Sundays also.

These Post Offices are termed Night Post Offices and will transact only those transactions that have been authorized by the Director-General.

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Question 2

#1002

An officer while on camp received a special bag that contained an ordinary parcel, a money order and a few registered letters. What was the incorrect in this action?

A

Nothing wrong

B

Registered articles should be sent in a registered bag

C

Ordinary Parcels and Money orders should not be sent in special bags

D

A special bag should not contain any of the above articles

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Parcels, Money Orders, Insured Articles, Value Payable (V.P.) Articles, and articles on which any charge is due cannot be delivered through Special Bags. Therefore, such articles should be addressed to a Post Town.

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Question 3

#1003

Match the following:

Circle/Division/Region
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Goa
c) Punjab
d) Haryana

Circle Headquarters
p) Chandigarh
q) Mumbai
r) Shillong
s) Ambala

A

A-s B-r C-q D-p

B

A-r B-s C-q D-p

C

A-r B-q C-s D-p

D

A-r B-q C-p D-s

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh falls under the North East Circle with headquarters in Shillong (A-r). Goa is part of the Maharashtra Circle with headquarters in Mumbai (B-q). Punjab Circle's headquarters is in Chandigarh (C-p). Haryana Circle's headquarters is in Ambala (D-s). Therefore, the correct matching is A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s.

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Question 4

#1004

Only one License die in a franking machine is allowed but more than one impression of a value die is allowed

A

Correct

B

Incorrect

C

Both are allowed more than one

D

Neither are allowed more than one

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

The impressions of Franking Machines recorded on postal articles should not be interfered with in any way.

  • The impression should be of bright red colour, clear, distinct, and should not overlap.
  • As far as possible, the impression should be placed on the right top corner of the address side of the article, or on an address wrapper or an address label firmly attached to it.
  • Franking is allowed up to any amount.
  • There may be more than one impression of the Value Die, but only one impression of the Licence Die on each article.
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Question 5

#1005

If a parcel is found to have more than one communication, then each communication shall be charged on delivery with ____

A

Single letter postage

B

Double letter postage

C

Single parcel postage

D

Registered parcel postage

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

  • Anything may be sent in a Parcel except articles whose transmission is prohibited.
  • A Parcel may contain one written communication of the nature of a letter or having the character of a personal communication, addressed to the addressee of the parcel.
  • If a Parcel is suspected to contain any written communication other than the one permitted, it will be forwarded to its destination marked "For Open Delivery".
  • If, on being opened at the office of delivery in the presence of the addressee or their authorized agent, the Parcel is found to contain any written communication other than the one permitted, each such written communication shall be charged on delivery with double the letter postage.
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Question 6

#1006

A registered newspaper publisher could not post his newspapers on time due to Covid-19. Who should he write to get another approved date?

A

Postmaster General

B

Senior Superintendent of Post Offices

C

Senior Superintendent of RMS

D

Postmaster of the office of booking

Correct answer keyB
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Question 7

#1007

During inspection of articles booked at the counter of a post office, the inspecting authority noted the amount collected from a degree college while sending blind literature by post to a blind student. Which of these were collected correctly?

A

Registration fee

B

Postage fee

C

Air surcharge

D

All of the above

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Blind literature packets are exempt from postage fee and registration fee. However, if they are to be transmitted by air, the air surcharge must be collected.

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Question 8

#1008

A Book packet cannot contain ____

A

Printed Music Books

B

Printed circulars

C

Printed magazines

D

Blank Parchment

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

A Book packet may contain Newspapers, publications of all kinds, printed music books, paper, parchment and cardboard either blank or printed not bearing any writing.

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Question 9

#1009

A sends a registered article which was later found to be delivered in a damaged condition. A can submit claim for compensation within _____

A

10 days from date of posting

B

3 months from date of posting

C

6 months from date of posting

D

12 months from date of posting

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Complaints relating to loss or damage to a registered or insured article where a claim for compensation is made should be made within three months from the date of posting of the article.

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Question 10

#1010

A sent a parcel to B, the postage for which had to be paid by B on receipt. When B refuses to accept the article and A also refuses to pay the postage:

A

The Post Office will retain the article until postage is paid

B

The Post Office can destroy the article after a period of ten days

C

The Post Office can deliver the article to B for free

D

The Post Office can hold back mails addressed to A or send them back after 7 days until A pays the postage owed by him

Correct answer keyD
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Question 11

#1011

A postman can attempt home delivery of a parcel weighing more than 10 KG

A

Once

B

Twice

C

Every day for 5 days

D

Never

Correct answer keyD
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Question 12

#1012

PMA application can be used for: Choose the correct option
(1) Delivery of Speed Post and Registered articles
(2) Marking of location of letter boxes (LBs)
(3) Delivery of Parcels and COD articles
(4) Delivery of e-MOs

A

1 only

B

2 and 4 only

C

1, 3 and 4 only

D

1, 2 and 4 only

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The PMA application is utilized for the delivery of Speed Post and Registered articles, Delivery of Parcels and COD articles, and Delivery of e-MOs. It is not used for marking the location of letter boxes.

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Question 13

#1013

Which of the following articles are not allowed to be sent through inland post?

A

Perfumes

B

Tuberculosis sputum

C

Live bees

D

Lottery tickets

Correct answer keyD
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Question 14

#1014

Which bag is closed to transmit empty bags to UBO/DBO/CBO?

A

Packet Bag

B

Due Bag

C

Registered Packet Bag

D

Transit Bag

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Bags returned empty to UBO/DBO/CBO/PO or sacks containing such bags are treated as packet bags. Packet bags are not due bags and when dispatched they are treated as unusual mail.

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Question 15

#1015

A, B and C are post offices in a straight line of mail communication. Mail bags sent from A to C are sent via B after being sorted and without being opened. B is called:

A

Transit Section

B

Head Office

C

Link post office

D

Transit Office

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Any Post Office which is situated on a line of through mail communication, and receives and sorts bags intended for offices in advance, without opening them, is a transit office. The bags which are thus forwarded onwards unopened are termed forward bags.

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Question 16

#1016

If I am sending an insured bag, what should it be enclosed in?

A

Unusual bag

B

Cash Bag

C

Registered Bag

D

Parcel Bag

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

  • An Insured Bag is intended to give cover to Insured Parcels (including Insured V.P. Parcels) so as to afford them greater security.
  • Insured Bags do not come under the category either of Due Bags or Unusual Bags, nor do they contain any list of their contents, these being detailed in the Ordinary Parcel List.
  • An Insured Bag is never dispatched loose, but is always enclosed in a Parcel Bag or Mail Bag.
  • It is placed inside the Parcel Bag when a Parcel Bag is made up for the office or section to which it is addressed; when a Parcel Bag is not made up, it is placed inside the Mail Bag.
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Question 17

#1017

In convertible Whole Life Insurance, a customer can convert her policy to an Endowment Assurance Policy within the first _____ years of commencement of the policy

A

Four

B

Five

C

Six

D

Seven

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Convertible Whole Life Assurance (Suvidha) policy can be converted into Endowment Assurance after 5 years not later than 6 years of taking the policy. If not converted, the policy will be treated as Whole Life Assurance.

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Question 18

#1018

Consider the following statements. Pick the correct statement:

  1. Customs duty assessment of incoming foreign mails is done in both foreign post offices and foreign sub post offices.
  2. A foreign post office is an office of exchange while a foreign sub post office is not.
A

1 only

B

2 only

C

1 and 2 are correct

D

Neither is correct

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Customs duty assessment of incoming foreign mails is done in both foreign post offices and foreign sub post offices. A foreign post office acts as an office of exchange, while a foreign sub post office does not. Thus, both statements are correct.

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Question 19

#1019

Consider the following statements: Pick the correct statement:
i) A Post Restante article can be kept in the post office to which it is addressed for not more than 60 days.
ii) There is no such thing as a beat in an RMS section.
iii) The Due Mail List shows the details of bags to be received by a post office.

A

I only

B

II and III only

C

I and III only

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

  • The Due Mail List shows the details of bags to be received and dispatched by a Mail Office or Transit Section.

  • It shows:

    • (a) In which cases Mail Lists are to be dispatched and received with Loose Bags.
    • (b) Where Transit Bags are to be used.
    • (c) Where Account Bags and Branch Office (B.O.) Bags are to be sent or received in Mail Bags.
    • (d) In the case of a Sub Office, the Mail Bags containing Cash Bags enclosed in Registered Bags.
  • The term Beat, when used in relation to an RMS Section, means the portion of a Railway or Steamer line over which the section works.

  • When used in relation to Postal Overseers and Delivery Agents (such as Postmen and Village Postmen), it denotes the area within which they are required to perform their respective duties.

  • A Beat includes the Post Offices served by the official concerned.

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Question 20

#1020

If it is found that the Post Box is being misused by the renter, what action can be taken by post office?

A

Charge penalty of 5000

B

Charge the double rent of post box

C

Withdraw the post box facility

D

Lodge FIR in police station

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The Post Office reserves the right to withdraw the post box without notice or without any reason being assigned, if any information furnished by the applicant is found to be incorrect, or if it is found that the Post Box is being misused by the renter.

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Question 21

#1021

What are Trial cards?

A

Service Letters

B

Service Post Cards

C

Service Inland Letter Cards

D

Service Parcel Cards

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Trial cards are service Post Cards [M 26 (a)] which are employed for the purpose of determining the relative advantage of alternative mail routes or the cause of detention to articles.

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Question 22

#1022

What is the minimum number of registered articles to prepare registered bundles?

A

2

B

3

C

4

D

5

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Registered bundles are not due, but are made up ordinarily when the number of registered articles to be enclosed exceeds two. Thus, the minimum number to prepare a registered bundle is 3.

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Question 23

#1023

Stamp collectors can collect stamps from the _____

A

Multipurpose Counter

B

Postman

C

Philatelic Bureau

D

Philately branch

Correct answer keyC
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Question 24

#1024

Choose the right answer:
i) The value of postage can be paid by impressions of a franking machine.
ii) It can also be paid in cash.

A

I is correct but II is wrong

B

I is wrong but II is correct

C

I and II are both correct

D

I and II are both wrong

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The value of postage can be paid by impressions of a franking machine. It can also be paid in cash. Both statements are correct.

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Question 25

#1025

Special Bags can be delivered on

A

post office working days only

B

Sundays and holidays only

C

working days, Sundays and holidays

D

working days and Sundays but not on other holidays

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Special Bags can be delivered on all days including working days, Sundays, and holidays.

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Question 26

#1026

Arrange the following Departmental positions in increasing order of authority: "Postal Board Member, Postmaster General, Director, Senior Superintendent, Senior Postmaster"

A

Postal Board Member, Director, Postmaster General, Senior Postmaster, Senior Superintendent

B

Senior Postmaster, Senior Superintendent, Director, Postal Board Member, Postmaster General

C

Senior Postmaster, Senior Superintendent, Director, Postmaster General, Postal Board Member

D

Postal Board Member, Postmaster General, Director, Senior Superintendent, Senior Postmaster

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The correct increasing order of authority within the department is: Senior Postmaster, Senior Superintendent, Director, Postmaster General, and finally Postal Board Member.

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Question 27

#1027

Window delivery of an insured article will be done if the insured value is more than:

A

500

B

100

C

1000

D

5000

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Window delivery of an insured article is done if the insured value is more than ₹500.

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Question 28

#1028

A post office detained an inland article for 10 days and a foreign article for 20 days. Is this action correct?

A

Yes, inland article - 10 days and foreign article - 20 days

B

No, inland article - 5 days and foreign article - 10 days

C

No, inland article - 20 days and foreign article - 10 days

D

No, inland article - 7 days and foreign article - 15 days

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The post office can detain an inland article for up to 7 days and a foreign article for up to 15 days.

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Question 29

#1029

A person comes to the post office to send by parcel a load of books. What maximum dimensions in length and girth per parcel is he allowed to send the books (in m x m)?

A

1.0 x 1.8

B

1.5 x 1.5

C

1.0 x 1.0

D

2.0 x 1.5

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  • The maximum length of a Parcel should not exceed 1 metre.
  • The combined length and girth of a Parcel should not exceed 1.80 metres.
    (As per the Post Office Guide, Part I).
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Question 30

#1030

The annual fees of availing the facility of post box and post bag is:

A

150

B

250

C

100

D

800

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The combined annual fee for availing the facility of both a post box and a post bag is ₹250.

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Question 31

#1031

Choose the correct option:--
i) People in Delhi wear woolen clothes in winter while people in Surat wear cotton clothes in winter.
ii) Both the cities are situated in the same degree of longitudes.

A

Both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation for I

B

Both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation for I

C

I is true and II is false

D

I is false and II is true

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

People in Delhi wear woolen clothes in winter because it experiences a harsh winter, whereas Surat's coastal climate allows for cotton clothes. However, Delhi and Surat are not situated on the same longitude, making statement II false. Therefore, I is true and II is false.

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Question 32

#1032

Match Column I with Column II. Choose the right option below.
A. January 1921
B. 1918-19
C. May 1924
D. December 1931

p) Baba Rama Chandra organizes peasants in UP
q) Non-cooperation & Khilafat movements launched
r) Alluri Sitaram Raju arrested ending a two-year armed tribal struggle
s) Second Round Table Conference in London

A

A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q

B

A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s

C

A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p

D

A-r, B-s, C-q, D-p

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The events match as follows:

  • A. January 1921: Non-cooperation & Khilafat movements launched (q).
  • B. 1918-19: Baba Rama Chandra organizes peasants in UP (p).
  • C. May 1924: Alluri Sitaram Raju arrested ending a two-year armed tribal struggle (r).
  • D. December 1931: Second Round Table Conference in London (s).
    The correct sequence is A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s.
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Question 33

#1033

How many postal circles are there in the country?

A

25

B

30

C

23

D

21

Correct answer keyC
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Question 34

#1034

___ is the first Indian citizen to be stationed on the International Space Station:

A

Rakesh Sharma

B

Divyanshu Shukla

C

Sunita Williams

D

Shubhanshu Shukla

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Shubhanshu Shukla is the first Indian citizen to be stationed on the International Space Station (ISS) as part of the Axiom Mission 4 (Ax-4) in 2025.

Extra Facts:

  • Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian in space (1984), but he travelled to the Soviet space station Salyut 7, not the ISS.
  • Sunita Williams has spent several missions aboard the ISS, but she is an American astronaut of Indian origin, not an Indian citizen.
  • Shubhanshu Shukla is an Indian Air Force Group Captain and one of the astronauts selected under India's Gaganyaan Human Spaceflight Programme.
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Question 35

#1035

A new mail guard joined the RMS office today. He jokingly said he comes from a state which does not share a land boundary with Bhutan. Identify the state:

A

Assam

B

Mizoram

C

Arunachal Pradesh

D

West Bengal

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Bhutan shares its land boundary with four Indian states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, West Bengal, and Sikkim. Mizoram is located much further south and shares its borders with Manipur, Tripura, Assam, and the countries of Bangladesh and Myanmar, rather than Bhutan.

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Question 36

#1036

"He" was the founder of the Mexican Communist Party and prominent a Comintern leader in India, China and Europe. He was in Central Asia at the time of civil war in the 1920s. Who is "He"?

A

J. L. Nehru

B

M. K. Gandhi

C

M. N. Roy

D

Alexander Benniger

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The correct answer is M. N. Roy (Manabendra Nath Roy).

Explanation:
M. N. Roy founded the Mexican Communist Party in 1919, making it one of the earliest communist parties outside Europe. He later became a prominent leader of the Communist International (Comintern) and worked in India, China, Europe, and Central Asia. During the Russian Civil War in the 1920s, he was active in Central Asia, where he was involved in revolutionary and political activities.

Extra Facts:

  • M. N. Roy was one of the founders of the Communist Party of India (CPI) at Tashkent in 1920.
  • Later, he broke away from orthodox communism and developed the philosophy of Radical Humanism.
  • He founded the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 and became an influential political philosopher in independent India.
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Question 37

#1037

How many states in India have a coastline?

A

6

B

8

C

9

D

11

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

In India, Nine States have a coastline. The states are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal. Four Union Territories also have a coastline, including Daman & Diu.

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Question 38

#1038

Which of the following is a major natural harbor located on the Malabar Coast at the entrance of the Vembanad lagoon?

A

Chennai

B

Tuticorin

C

Mangalore

D

Kochi

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The correct answer is Cochin (Kochi) Harbour.

Explanation:
Cochin (Kochi) Harbour is a major natural harbour located on the Malabar Coast of Kerala, at the entrance of the Vembanad Lake (Vembanad Lagoon). It is one of India's largest natural harbours and serves as a major port for international trade and maritime activities.

Extra Facts:

  • Cochin Port is one of the 12 Major Ports of India.
  • Willingdon Island, India's largest artificial island, is located within Cochin Harbour.
  • The harbour was significantly developed after the dredging works led by Sir Robert Bristow in the early 20th century.
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Question 39

#1039

Rohan was on a school trip to a biosphere reserve located on a river delta. There he saw that trees have long roots submerged under the water. When he touched a leaf of a tree he felt a powder-like substance on it. Analyze the information given above and identify the correct forest type from the choices below:

A

Tropical Evergreen Forests

B

Tropical Deciduous Forests

C

Mangrove Forests

D

Montane Forests

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The correct answer is Mangrove Forest.

Explanation:
The clues point to a Mangrove Forest:

  • It is located on a river delta.
  • The trees have long roots submerged in water (stilt roots and pneumatophores) to survive in marshy, waterlogged conditions.
  • The powder-like substance on the leaves is salt, which is excreted by many mangrove species to tolerate saline water.

Extra Facts:

  • The Sundarbans is the largest mangrove forest in the world, located in the Ganga–Brahmaputra Delta across India and Bangladesh.
  • The Royal Bengal Tiger is the most famous animal found in the Sundarbans.
  • Mangrove forests protect coastlines from cyclones, storm surges, and coastal erosion.
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Question 40

#1040

A maximum interval of ________ months can lapse between two sessions of a State Legislative Assembly?

A

1 month

B

3 months

C

6 months

D

9 months

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The correct answer is 6 months.

Explanation:
According to Article 174 of the Constitution of India, the Governor summons the State Legislative Assembly from time to time, and not more than six months can elapse between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next session.

Extra Facts:

  • The same 6-month rule applies to Parliament under Article 85 of the Constitution.
  • The Governor summons, prorogues, and dissolves the State Legislative Assembly on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
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Question 41

#1041

Rohit borrowed 60,000 from a bank at 9% per annum for 2 years. He lent this sum of money to Rohan at 10% per annum for 2 years. How much did Rohit earn from this transaction?

A

1220

B

1150

C

1200

D

1180

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

  • Amount Borrowed: P=60,000P = 60,000
  • Interest Paid by Rohit: R1=9%R_1 = 9\%, T=2T = 2 years. SI1=P×R1×T100=60000×9×2100=10,800SI_1 = \frac{P \times R_1 \times T}{100} = \frac{60000 \times 9 \times 2}{100} = 10,800
  • Interest Earned by Rohit: R2=10%R_2 = 10\%, T=2T = 2 years. SI2=P×R2×T100=60000×10×2100=12,000SI_2 = \frac{P \times R_2 \times T}{100} = \frac{60000 \times 10 \times 2}{100} = 12,000
  • Profit Earned: 1200010800=120012000 - 10800 = 1200
    Thus, Rohit earned ₹1200 from the transaction.
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Question 42

#1042

The time required for a sum of money to amount to five times itself at 16% simple interest per annum will be:

A

20 years

B

25 years

C

28 years

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

  • Let the principal sum be PP.
  • For the amount to become five times itself (5P5P), the simple interest accrued must be 4P4P.
  • Rate of interest R=16%R = 16\%.
  • Using the formula SI=P×R×T100SI = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100}:
    4P=P×16×T1004P = \frac{P \times 16 \times T}{100}
    4=16×T1004 = \frac{16 \times T}{100}
    T=40016=25 yearsT = \frac{400}{16} = 25 \text{ years}
    Therefore, the time required is 25 years.
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Question 43

#1043

Ajay sells Vijay a plot of land for 45,000 losing 10 per cent in the transaction. Vijay sells it to Sanjay at a price which would have given Ajay a profit of 10 per cent. What is Vijay's gain percentage?

A

100/3 %

B

75/2 %

C

200/9 %

D

220/6 %

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

  • Ajay sells a plot for ₹45,000 at a 10% loss. Let Ajay's cost price be CPACP_A.
    CPA×0.90=45000    CPA=450000.90=50,000CP_A \times 0.90 = 45000 \implies CP_A = \frac{45000}{0.90} = 50,000.
  • Vijay's cost price CPV=45,000CP_V = 45,000.
  • Vijay sells it to Sanjay at a price that would have given Ajay a 10% profit.
    Ajay's 10% profit selling price =50000×1.10=55,000= 50000 \times 1.10 = 55,000.
    Therefore, Vijay's selling price SPV=55,000SP_V = 55,000.
  • Vijay's profit =5500045000=10,000= 55000 - 45000 = 10,000.
  • Vijay's gain percentage =(1000045000)×100=100045=2009%= (\frac{10000}{45000}) \times 100 = \frac{1000}{45} = \frac{200}{9}\%.
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Question 44

#1044

Payal's annual salary in 2025 is 1,26,500. Her salary for 2023 rose annually by 10 per cent and 15% respectively to reach the 2025 figures. What was her salary in 2023?

A

95,000

B

1,25,000

C

1,15,000

D

1,00,000

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

  • Let Payal's salary in 2023 be xx.
  • Salary in 2024 =x×1.10= x \times 1.10 (10% rise).
  • Salary in 2025 =(x×1.10)×1.15=1,26,500= (x \times 1.10) \times 1.15 = 1,26,500 (15% rise).
  • x×1.265=126500x \times 1.265 = 126500.
  • x=1265001.265=1,00,000x = \frac{126500}{1.265} = 1,00,000.
    Her salary in 2023 was ₹1,00,000.
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Question 45

#1045

When Seema scores 40% marks she fails by 50 marks. But when she scored 50% marks then she scored 180 marks less than the highest marks scored by Kavita which is 70% of the total marks. What is the passing percentage? (Approximately)

A

33.33%

B

42.33%

C

45.56%

D

50%

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

  • Let the total marks be TT and the passing marks be PP.
  • Condition 1: Seema scores 40% and fails by 50 marks.
    P=0.40T+50P = 0.40T + 50
  • Condition 2: When she scores 50%, she scores 180 marks less than Kavita (who scored 70% of TT).
    0.50T=0.70T1800.50T = 0.70T - 180
    0.20T=180    T=9000.20T = 180 \implies T = 900
  • Substitute TT to find the passing marks PP:
    P=0.40(900)+50=360+50=410P = 0.40(900) + 50 = 360 + 50 = 410
  • Passing percentage =410900×10045.56%= \frac{410}{900} \times 100 \approx 45.56\%.
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Question 46

#1046

?4554=24?65\frac{?^{\frac{4}{5}}}{54} = \frac{24}{?^{\frac{6}{5}}}

A

18

B

36

C

12

D

54

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

  • Let the unknown value be xx.
    x4/554=24x6/5\frac{x^{4/5}}{54} = \frac{24}{x^{6/5}}[cite: 1]
  • Cross-multiply the terms:
    x4/5×x6/5=54×24x^{4/5} \times x^{6/5} = 54 \times 24[cite: 1]
    x(4/5+6/5)=1296x^{(4/5 + 6/5)} = 1296[cite: 1]
    x10/5=x2=1296x^{10/5} = x^2 = 1296[cite: 1]
    x=1296=36x = \sqrt{1296} = 36

Question 47

#1047

24 x (0.0112 - 0.0012) of 0.14 + 0.25 x 0.2 / (0.02 x 0.01) = ?

Removed from evaluation

This question was removed from the original paper as it was invalid, controversial, or out of syllabus and carries no marks.

A

257

B

2.57

C

25.7

D

0.0257

Explanation

  • Evaluate parentheses: 0.01120.0012=0.010.0112 - 0.0012 = 0.01.
  • Evaluate 'of': 0.01 of 0.14=0.01×0.14=0.00140.01 \text{ of } 0.14 = 0.01 \times 0.14 = 0.0014.
  • Multiply by 24: 24×0.0014=0.033624 \times 0.0014 = 0.0336.
  • Evaluate second term in numerator: 0.25×0.2=0.050.25 \times 0.2 = 0.05.
  • Total numerator =0.0336+0.05=0.0836= 0.0336 + 0.05 = 0.0836.
  • Evaluate denominator: 0.02×0.01=0.00020.02 \times 0.01 = 0.0002.
  • Final division: 0.08360.0002=8362=418\frac{0.0836}{0.0002} = \frac{836}{2} = 418.
    The correct answer is 418, which is not listed in the options (designated 'X' in the key).
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Question 48

#1048

Bhupen Bhai likes to walk and run to school. He runs twice as fast as he walks. On Monday, when going to school, he walked for twice the time for which he ran. On Tuesday, on the same way, he ran for twice the time that he walked and was six minutes quicker than on Monday. On Wednesday, he walked the entire distance to school. How long did this take him?

A

30 minutes

B

40 minutes

C

45 minutes

D

Cannot be determined

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

  • Let walking speed be VV. Running speed is 2V2V.
  • Monday: Let running time be tt. Walking time =2t= 2t. Total time =3t= 3t. Distance D=(2t×V)+(t×2V)=4VtD = (2t \times V) + (t \times 2V) = 4Vt.
  • Tuesday: Let walking time be kk. Running time =2k= 2k. Total time =3k= 3k. Distance D=(k×V)+(2k×2V)=5VkD = (k \times V) + (2k \times 2V) = 5Vk.
  • Since the distance DD is constant: 4Vt=5Vk    k=45t4Vt = 5Vk \implies k = \frac{4}{5}t.
  • Tuesday was 6 minutes quicker: 3t3k=6    tk=23t - 3k = 6 \implies t - k = 2.
  • Substitute kk: t45t=2    t5=2    t=10t - \frac{4}{5}t = 2 \implies \frac{t}{5} = 2 \implies t = 10 minutes.
  • The total distance is D=4V(10)=40VD = 4V(10) = 40V.
  • On Wednesday, he walked the entire distance. Time =DV=40VV=40= \frac{D}{V} = \frac{40V}{V} = 40 minutes.
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Question 49

#1049

Five men take as much time to harvest a 1-acre field as 10 women take. If 6 men take 10 days to harvest a 1-acre field working 4 hours each day, then how many days would 10 women take to harvest a 2-acre field working 6 hours a day?

A

12 days

B

14 days

C

16 days

D

18 days

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

  • 5 Men = 10 Women, which means the efficiency of 10 Women equals 5 Men.
  • Using the Work Formula: M1×D1×H1W1=M2×D2×H2W2\frac{M_1 \times D_1 \times H_1}{W_1} = \frac{M_2 \times D_2 \times H_2}{W_2}.
  • Set 1: M1=6M_1 = 6 men, D1=10D_1 = 10 days, H1=4H_1 = 4 hours/day, W1=1W_1 = 1 acre.
  • Set 2: 10 women can be replaced with M2=5M_2 = 5 men, H2=6H_2 = 6 hours/day, W2=2W_2 = 2 acres, and we need to find D2D_2.
  • Substitute the values:
    6×10×41=5×D2×62\frac{6 \times 10 \times 4}{1} = \frac{5 \times D_2 \times 6}{2}[cite: 1]
    240=15×D2240 = 15 \times D_2
    D2=24015=16D_2 = \frac{240}{15} = 16 days.
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Question 50

#1050

If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many days?

A

1

B

8

C

7

D

none of the above

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

  • Using the basic work formula: M1×D1W1=M2×D2W2\frac{M_1 \times D_1}{W_1} = \frac{M_2 \times D_2}{W_2}.
  • Substitute the given values:
    7 spiders×7 days7 webs=1 spider×D21 web\frac{7 \text{ spiders} \times 7 \text{ days}}{7 \text{ webs}} = \frac{1 \text{ spider} \times D_2}{1 \text{ web}}.
  • 7=D27 = D_2.
  • Therefore, 1 spider will make 1 web in 7 days.