Previous Year Question Paper

GDS To MTS Question Paper 2025 Maharashtra Circle

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GDS To MTS Question Paper 2025 Maharashtra Circle questions and answers

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Question 1

#1501

RLO stands for ______

A

Returned letter office

B

Refused letter office

C

Redirected letter office

D

Regional letter office

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Clause 12 of the Post Office Guide Part 1 states: "A Returned Letter Office is established at the Headquarters of a Postal Circle and deals with unclaimed and refused articles and articles without addresses or with undecipherable or incomplete addresses."

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Question 2

#1502

In which of the following offices Registered News Paper is accepted without any late fee?

A

RMS

B

PSO

C

Night Post Office

D

All the above

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Clause 7(c) of the Post Office Guide Part 1 specifies: "Registered newspapers and packets of registered news papers are accepted on Sundays and PO holidays without payment of any late fee in Press Sorting Offices, R.M.S. offices and at Night Post Offices."

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Question 3

#1503

Maximum amount that can be invested in Kisan Vikas Patra is

A

Rs.9 lakhs

B

Rs.15 lakhs

C

Rs.50 lakhs

D

No limit

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Kisan Vikas Patra (KVP) is a popular savings scheme offered by India Post. The minimum investment allowed is Rs. 1000 (and in multiples of Rs. 100 thereafter). There is no upper limit on the maximum amount that can be invested in this scheme.

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Question 4

#1504

Consider the following statements. Choose the correct option.

  1. In post office, selling Revenue stamps issued by Government of India cannot be used for payment of postage.
  2. Postage can be made by affixing postal stamps or proper impression of franking machine.
A

Only statement 1 is incorrect

B

Only statement 2 is incorrect

C

Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct

D

Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

According to the Post Office Guide Part 1, Clause 10 Note: "Post Offices also, sell Revenue stamps issued by the Central Government. These stamps cannot be used for payment of postage."

Furthermore, Clause 10(iii) verifies statement 2: "Postage charges can, also, be paid by means of a proper impression or impressions of a franking machine..." Therefore, both statements are correct.

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Question 5

#1505

'Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana', the scholarship scheme of Philately, by Department of Posts is to award children in the category of ______

A

Standard I to IV

B

Standard VI to IX

C

Standard VI to XII

D

Standard XI to XII

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The Deen Dayal SPARSH (Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude & Research in Stamps as a Hobby) Yojana is a pan-India scholarship program conceptualized by the Department of Posts to promote philately among children studying in Standard VI to IX.

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Question 6

#1506

PMA is used for _______

  1. Delivery of Speed post and Registered articles
  2. Marking of location of LBs
  3. Delivery of Parcels and COD articles
  4. Delivery of e-MOs
A

1 only

B

2 and 4 only

C

1, 3 and 4 only

D

1, 2 and 4 only

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The Postman Mobile App (PMA) is officially used by postal delivery staff for real-time delivery updates of accountable articles. These include Speed Post, Registered articles, Parcels, COD (Cash on Delivery), and electronic Money Orders (e-MOs). The marking of Letter Box (LB) locations is typically tracked using a separate software application known as Nanyatha.

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Question 7

#1507

Franking Machine has

A

Value die

B

License die

C

Both a and b

D

None of these

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Clause 11(2) of the Post Office Guide Part 1 explicitly states: "For being recognized valid, the impressions of 'frank' should consist of the following dies :- (a) Value Die and (b) Licence Die."

Question 8

#1508

Supervisor, Speed Post Centre submits his daily report in ______

Removed from evaluation

This question was removed from the original paper as it was invalid, controversial, or out of syllabus and carries no marks.

A

MS-85

B

MS-84

C

MS-83

D

MS-82

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Question 9

#1509

A Branch Post Office is in direct account with a _______

A

Sub Office

B

Head Office

C

Either of the above

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

According to Clause 8(1) of the Post Office Guide Part 1 and Postal Manual Vol. V: "A Branch Office is a Post Office of lower status than a sub-office. It is in direct account with a Head or sub-office which is termed its accounts office and its monetary transactions are in-corporated in the accounts of the latter office."

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Question 10

#1510

BNPL stands for _______

A

Book Now Pay Later

B

Book Now Pay Low

C

Book Next Pay Later

D

Book New Pay Less

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Under India Post's corporate offerings, BNPL stands for Book Now Pay Later. It is a facility exclusively extended to bulk customers, enabling them to book accountable mail like Speed Post and settle the cumulative charges via a monthly bill.

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Question 11

#1511

______ is a branch of RMS where closed bags are received and dispatched, sorting of letters is not done in this Unit.

A

Mail branch

B

Section office

C

Transit mail office

D

ICH

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Clause 9-B of the Postal Manual Volume V defines it exactly: "Transit Mail Office. A branch of RMS where closed bags are received and dispatched, sorting of letters is not done in this unit."

Question 12

#1512

A Poste Restante article (except value-payable) is kept in the post office to which it is addressed for a period not exceeding _______

Removed from evaluation

This question was removed from the original paper as it was invalid, controversial, or out of syllabus and carries no marks.

A

7 days

B

1 month

C

10 days

D

15 days

Explanation

This question was CANCELLED in the official answer key. However, for factual context, Clause 65(1) of the Post Office Guide Part 1 states: "A Poste Restante article (except value-payable) is kept in the post office to which it is addressed for a period not exceeding one month."

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Question 13

#1513

Franking will be allowed upto _____

A

For any amount

B

Rs.100

C

Rs.1000

D

Rs.2000

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

According to Clause 11(7) of the Post Office Guide Part 1: "Franking will be allowed upto any amount. There may be more than one impression of the value die but only one of the licence die on each article."

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Question 14

#1514

The using for the payment of postage or postal fees with intent to cause loss to the Central Government, of a stamp that has already been used for that or any other purpose is an offence under the _______

A

Post Office Act

B

Postal Manual Volume 5

C

PO Guide

D

Indian Penal Code

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Clause 13(2) of the Post Office Guide Part 1 stipulates: "The using for the payment of postage or postal fees, with intent to cause loss to the Central Government, of a stamp that has already been used for that or any other purpose, is an offence under the Indian Penal Code."

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Question 15

#1515

A Post Office or Sorting Office or Section which exchanges mails with offices in foreign countries is known as an ______

A

FOREX office

B

Transfer office

C

EXIM office

D

Office of Exchange

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Clause 13(a) of the Postal Manual Volume 5 defines it verbatim: "A Post Office or Sorting Office or Section which exchanges mails with offices in foreign countries is known as an 'Office of Exchange'."

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Question 16

#1516

The articles/correspondence addressed 'Camp' is called _____

A

Camp article

B

Confidential article

C

Camp correspondence

D

Due article

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Clause 56 of the Postal Manual Volume 5 officially defines it as: "The expression camp correspondence means letters and other articles of correspondence addressed 'camp' or with any other prescribed address, without the addition of the name of any post-town, and intended for high officers on tour."

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Question 17

#1517

Face of the article means _____

A

on which address of the addressee is written

B

on which address of the sender is written

C

contents of the article

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Clause 54 of Postal Manual Volume 5 explicitly defines the terminology: "The face of an article is the side on which the address is written. The terms 'facing' means the arrangement of articles with the address-side upwards and the addresses turned in the same direction."

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Question 18

#1518

Cost of postage for sending Blind Literature Packet _____

A

Rs.1

B

25 paise

C

50 paise

D

Free of cost

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

According to Clause 136 of the Post Office Guide Part 1, Blind literature packets are entirely exempt from the payment of postage, making them free of cost for standard surface mail transmission, along with exemptions from registration and acknowledgement fees.

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Question 19

#1519

The chief of a group of post offices consisting of itself and SO's/BO's which have been placed under the account jurisdiction is _____

A

Chief Post Office

B

Head Post Office

C

Gazetted HO

D

Mukhya Dak Ghar

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Clause 5 of Postal Manual Volume 5 details the hierarchy: "A Head Office is the main office of a group Post Offices consisting of itself and a number of small offices called sub and branch offices which have been placed under its Accounts jurisdiction. It is the main office of account for itself and for all the sub and branch offices within the group..."

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Question 20

#1520

Maximum weight of the article that can be booked as Business Parcel is _____

A

20 Kg.

B

10 Kg.

C

50 Kg.

D

35 Kg.

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The Business Parcel service (now integrated under India Post Parcel Contractual for enterprise customers) allows booking and shipping of heavy consignments with a maximum weight threshold of 35 Kg.

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Question 21

#1521

_______ is opened on Sundays and PO Holidays.

A

Mobile Post Office

B

Head Post Office

C

General Post Office

D

Night Post Office

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Clause 3(iii) of the Post Office Guide Part 1 states: "On Sundays and National Holidays as well as other P.O. holidays the night Post Offices function and observe restricted working hours. These offices work for one shift only from 10:00 to 17.00 hours."

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Question 22

#1522

When was RPLI introduced?

A

1994

B

1995

C

1998

D

1996

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Rural Postal Life Insurance (RPLI) was introduced by the Department of Posts on March 24, 1995. This initiative was launched based on the recommendations of the Malhotra Committee to expand life insurance penetration specifically among the rural population.

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Question 23

#1523

Premature closure is not possible in the case of ____

A

NSC (VIII Issue)

B

SCSS

C

RD

D

TD

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

The National Savings Certificate (NSC) VIII Issue holds a strict maturity lock-in period of 5 years. Premature encashment or closure is generally not permitted under normal conditions, barring specific exceptions like the death of the certificate holder.

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Question 24

#1524

Rule governing manner of affixing postage stamps is ____

A

Rule 20 of PO Guide Part I

B

Rule 22 of PO Guide Part I

C

Rule 23 of PO Guide Part I

D

Rule 25 of PO Guide Part I

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Clause (or Rule) 23 of the Post Office Guide Part 1 is specifically dedicated to the 'Manner of affixing postage stamps'. It dictates that "Stamps affixed to a letter or packet must be completely adherent to the article itself..."

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Question 25

#1525

When the 'World Post Day' is celebrated in India?

A

9th October

B

9th November

C

30th October

D

2nd October

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

World Post Day is observed annually on 9th October to commemorate the establishment of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) in 1874 in Bern, Switzerland. In India, it simultaneously kicks off National Postal Week.

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Question 26

#1526

What is the maximum age limit for enrolment under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)?

A

50 years

B

60 years

C

40 years

D

70 years

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) is a low-cost, government-backed accidental death and disability insurance scheme. The eligible enrolment age spans from 18 years up to a maximum of 70 years.

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Question 27

#1527

What amount to be collected from residents for new enrolment of Aadhar?

A

Rs.100/-

B

Free of cost

C

Rs.50/-

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) mandates that all fresh Aadhaar enrolments, as well as mandatory biometric updates for children, are to be conducted entirely free of cost across all registration centers including post offices.

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Question 28

#1528

The superscription "On India Government Service" must be supported by the signature and official designation to be entered in the lower left-hand corner of the _____

A

of the Officer who sends the article

B

of the Head Clerk or Superintendent of his office

C

Other responsible officer to whom the duty of dispatching is assigned

D

All of the above

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

As per Clause 198(b) of the Post Office Guide Part 1: "This superscription must be supported by the signature and official designation to be entered in the lower left-hand corner of the article of the officer who sends the article, or of the Head Clerk or Superintendent of his office or other responsible officer to whom the duty of dispatching is assigned."

Question 29

#1529

The cage TB of a mail van should be opened by

Removed from evaluation

This question was removed from the original paper as it was invalid, controversial, or out of syllabus and carries no marks.

A

MTS

B

SRM

C

Head Sorting Assistant

D

Sorting Assistant

Explanation

This question was CANCELLED in the final examination scoring key. Clause 44-A of the Postal Manual Volume 5 specifies that a Cage Transit Bag (TB) locked partition can only be legally opened by the Mail Agent at the destination TMO. The given options did not correctly list the Mail Agent.

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Question 30

#1530

What would be the benefit under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) in case of the death of the subscriber?

A

Rs.5 Lakhs

B

Rs.2 Lakhs

C

Rs.10 Lakhs

D

Rs.1 Lakh

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Under the PMSBY scheme, the risk coverage provides a payout of Rs. 2 Lakhs in the event of accidental death or permanent full disability, and Rs. 1 Lakh for permanent partial disability.

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Question 31

#1531

What do the five rings on the Olympic symbol represent?

A

The Five Oceans

B

The Five Planets

C

The Five Continents

D

The Greek Gods

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The five interlocking rings of the Olympic flag—colored blue, yellow, black, green, and red—symbolize the unity and gathering of athletes from the five continents of the world (Africa, Americas, Asia, Europe, and Oceania).

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Question 32

#1532

'The Right to Life' is guaranteed by which article in Indian Constitution?

A

Article 21

B

Article 23

C

Article 19 (1)

D

Article 17 (c)

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Article 21 is a fundamental right within the Indian Constitution that guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, declaring that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.

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Question 33

#1533

Article ______ of the Constitution of India lays down the process for introducing changes in the Constitution.

A

351

B

368

C

342

D

374

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Part XX, Article 368 of the Constitution of India explicitly outlines the power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and details the strict procedural frameworks required to pass such amendments.

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Question 34

#1534

The state having the largest forest area cover in India is ____

A

Arunachal Pradesh

B

Meghalaya

C

Maharashtra

D

Madhya Pradesh

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

According to the biennial India State of Forest Report (ISFR), Madhya Pradesh consistently holds the record for possessing the largest absolute area of forest cover in the nation.

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Question 35

#1535

Badrinath is situated on the bank of river _____

A

Krishna

B

Yamuna

C

Ganga

D

Alaknanda

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The sacred Hindu temple town of Badrinath, located in the Garhwal hill tracks in the state of Uttarakhand, lies strictly along the banks of the Alaknanda River.

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Question 36

#1536

If you fail in an examination ____

A

Commit suicide

B

Quit studies

C

Start study afresh without disappointment

D

None of these

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

This is a psychological and behavioral reasoning question. The most healthy, resilient, and correct response to a setback like an exam failure is to start studying afresh without disappointment, using the experience constructively.

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Question 37

#1537

Ethics deals with the correctness of ____

A

Perception

B

Intuition

C

Conduct

D

Thought

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Ethics, or moral philosophy, is the discipline concerned with systematizing and discerning what is morally right or wrong, focusing heavily on human conduct and deliberate actions in personal and professional spheres.

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Question 38

#1538

Lala Lajpat Rai dies as a result of injuries during the protest, the visit of _____

A

Cripps Mission

B

Simon Commission

C

King George V

D

Queen Victoria

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Veteran freedom fighter Lala Lajpat Rai sustained severe baton strikes when police ordered a lathi charge on a peaceful march he was leading against the Simon Commission in Lahore on October 30, 1928. He died shortly after from complications related to the injuries.

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Question 39

#1539

'Quit India Movement' was started in the year ____

A

1941

B

1943

C

1942

D

1932

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

The Quit India Movement, also designated as the August Kranti Movement, was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi demanding an end to British rule over India on August 8, 1942.

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Question 40

#1540

Who is the second Indian to travel to space successfully following Shri Rakesh Sharma?

A

Shubhanshu Shukla

B

Shubhanshu Mishra

C

Shubhashnu Mishra

D

Shudhashnu Shukla

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla is part of ISRO's astronaut corps assigned to pilot a commercial mission to the International Space Station, thereby becoming the second Indian astronaut to fly into space post-Rakesh Sharma.

Question 41

#1541

Choose the figure which is different from the rest. A F Z E

Removed from evaluation

This question was removed from the original paper as it was invalid, controversial, or out of syllabus and carries no marks.

A

A

B

F

C

Z

D

E

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Question 42

#1542

48/3+Y×430=1248 / 3 + Y \times 4 - 30 = 12. Find the value of Y

A

6.5

B

5.5

C

7.5

D

6.4

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Using the standard mathematical order of operations (BODMAS):

  1. First, resolve the division: 483=16\frac{48}{3} = 16
  2. Substitute the result into the equation: 16+4Y30=1216 + 4Y - 30 = 12
  3. Combine the numeric constants on the left side: 4Y14=124Y - 14 = 12
  4. Isolate the YY term by adding 14 to both sides: 4Y=12+144Y = 12 + 14
  5. Simplify: 4Y=264Y = 26
  6. Solve for YY: Y=264=6.5Y = \frac{26}{4} = 6.5
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Question 43

#1543

Find the next numbers in the series of numbers given below. 1, 7, 3, 9, 6, 12, 10, 16, ?

A

18

B

20

C

21

D

15

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The sequence is formed by interleaving two distinct progressing series:

  1. Sequence 1 (Odd positions: 1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th): 1, 3, 6, 10, ...
    • The differences between consecutive terms are incrementally increasing: +2+2, +3+3, +4+4.
    • The next term in this sub-sequence (the 9th term overall) will require adding +5+5.
    • Calculation: 10+5=1510 + 5 = 15.
  2. Sequence 2 (Even positions: 2nd, 4th, 6th, 8th): 7, 9, 12, 16, ...
    • The differences here are identically increasing: +2+2, +3+3, +4+4.

The question asks for the 9th number, which aligns with Sequence 1, yielding 15.

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Question 44

#1544

If A & B together complete a work in 20 days. B & C together complete the work in 15 days and C & A together complete the work in 12 days. In how many days will all the 3 complete the work together?

A

9 days

B

11 days

C

10 days

D

12 days

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Calculate utilizing the efficiency (one-day work) method:

  1. Let the total work be the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 20, 15, and 12, which is 60 units.
  2. Compute the 1-day work rate for each pair:
    • (A+B)(A + B)'s 1-day work = 6020=3\frac{60}{20} = 3 units/day
    • (B+C)(B + C)'s 1-day work = 6015=4\frac{60}{15} = 4 units/day
    • (C+A)(C + A)'s 1-day work = 6012=5\frac{60}{12} = 5 units/day
  3. Add all their efficiencies together: 2(A+B+C)=3+4+5=122(A + B + C) = 3 + 4 + 5 = 12 units/day
  4. Discover the combined efficiency of just A, B, and C: (A+B+C)=122=6(A + B + C) = \frac{12}{2} = 6 units/day
  5. Time required for all three to complete the task together = Total WorkCombined Efficiency=606=10\frac{\text{Total Work}}{\text{Combined Efficiency}} = \frac{60}{6} = 10 days.
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Question 45

#1545

30 labours can handle a task of grass cutting in a park in 9 days. After 2 days of the start of the work, if 30% of the labours left the work, then the remaining work will be completed in how many days?

A

8

B

10

C

13

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Calculate utilizing the man-days formula:

  1. Total labor requirement = Men×Days=30×9=270\text{Men} \times \text{Days} = 30 \times 9 = 270 labor-days.
  2. Work accomplished in the initial 2 days by the full group = 30×2=6030 \times 2 = 60 labor-days.
  3. Outstanding remaining work = 27060=210270 - 60 = 210 labor-days.
  4. Determine the size of the remaining workforce after 30% leave: 30(0.30×30)=309=2130 - (0.30 \times 30) = 30 - 9 = 21 laborers.
  5. Calculate the time necessary for 21 laborers to finish 210 labor-days: 21021=10\frac{210}{21} = 10 days.
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Question 46

#1546

Solve: (1234×1234)+(234×234)(123×123)=?(1234 \times 1234) + (234 \times 234) - (123 \times 123) = ?

A

1526383

B

1526833

C

1568233

D

1562383

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Evaluate the arithmetic operation step-by-step by squaring the individual terms:

  1. Find 12342=15227561234^{2} = 1522756
  2. Find 2342=54756234^{2} = 54756
  3. Find 1232=15129123^{2} = 15129
  4. Add the first two sums together: 1522756+54756=15775121522756 + 54756 = 1577512
  5. Deduct the third term from the total: 157751215129=15623831577512 - 15129 = 1562383
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Question 47

#1547

If selling price is double, then the profit triples. Find the profit percentage.

A

100%

B

103%

C

105.33%

D

120%

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Let us solve this algebraically:

  1. Let the Cost Price (CP) be CC and the original Selling Price (SP) be SS.
  2. The formula for the initial profit PP is: P=SCP = S - C.
  3. The problem states that if the SP is doubled (to 2S2S), the resultant profit becomes 3P3P.
  4. We can establish the equation: 2SC=3P2S - C = 3P
  5. Substitute the first equation into the new one: 2SC=3(SC)2S - C = 3(S - C)
  6. Expand the terms: 2SC=3S3C2S - C = 3S - 3C
  7. Rearrange to isolate variables: 2C=S2C = S
  8. Return to the profit equation using S=2CS = 2C: P=2CC=CP = 2C - C = C.
  9. Since the initial profit equals the Cost Price, the profit percentage is calculated as (CC)×100=100%(\frac{C}{C}) \times 100 = 100\%.
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Question 48

#1548

What will be simple interest for Rs 3200/- from 1 April 2024 to 16 June 2024 at 5% annual rate of interest?

A

Rs.31

B

Rs.32

C

Rs.33

D

Rs.34

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Calculate the simple interest by first determining the exact number of days:

  1. Count the days: When calculating days for bank interest, typically one boundary date (usually the opening date) is excluded while the closing date is included.
    • April: 29 days (excluding April 1)
    • May: 31 days
    • June: 16 days
    • Total Days T=29+31+16=76T = 29 + 31 + 16 = 76 days. Alternatively, counting all days from April 1 to June 16 yields 77 days.
  2. Apply the Simple Interest formula: SI=P×R×T100SI = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100}
  3. With T=77T = 77 days and a standard year of 365 days: SI=3200×5×77100×365=33.75SI = \frac{3200 \times 5 \times 77}{100 \times 365} = 33.75
  4. Rounding to the nearest whole rupee presents us with Rs. 34.
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Question 49

#1549

The average of 7 consecutive numbers is 20. What is the largest of these numbers?

A

21

B

22

C

23

D

24

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Solve using the properties of consecutive integers:

  1. Let the 7 consecutive numbers be denoted as x,x+1,x+2,x+3,x+4,x+5,x+6x, x+1, x+2, x+3, x+4, x+5, x+6.
  2. A foundational mathematical rule dictates that the average of an odd number of consecutive integers is always identically equal to the exact middle integer of that sequence.
  3. Here, the middle (4th) number is x+3x+3.
  4. Therefore, x+3=20x+3 = 20.
  5. We are looking for the largest number in the series, which is x+6x+6.
  6. Substitute to find the largest number: (x+3)+3=20+3=23(x+3) + 3 = 20 + 3 = 23.
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Question 50

#1550

If length and breadth of a rectangle became half and double respectively, then what will be the resultant area?

A

25%

B

0%

C

55%

D

75%

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Evaluate utilizing the area formula for rectangles:

  1. Let the primary length be LL and the primary breadth be BB.
  2. The fundamental area A1=L×BA_{1} = L \times B.
  3. The new modified dimensions are Length = L2\frac{L}{2} and Breadth = 2B2B.
  4. Calculate the new area A2=(L2)×(2B)=L×BA_{2} = (\frac{L}{2}) \times (2B) = L \times B.
  5. Because the modified area A2A_{2} exactly mirrors the initial area A1A_{1}, there is absolutely no net change.
  6. The resultant percentage change in the area is 0%.