Previous Year Question Paper

GDS To MTS Question Paper 2025 North East Circle

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GDS To MTS Question Paper 2025 North East Circle questions and answers

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Question 1

#1551

The currency period of the money order shall expire upon the ____

A

end of the last day of the second month following the month of issue

B

end of the last day of month of issue

C

end of 3 months from the date of issue

D

end of 6 months from the date of issue

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Period of Currency of Money Order — The currency period of a Money Order expires at the end of the last day of the second month following the month of issue.

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Question 2

#1552

_____ is the name given by India Post to the facility of franking based on RMFS.

A

Electrofrank plus

B

Digifrank plus

C

Postfrank plus

D

India Post frank plus

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Remotely Managed Franking Machine is also known as Digi Frank plus Machine. Its Impression contains two Meters: Ascending and Descending.

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Question 3

#1553

What is the validation period for Franking Machine License?

A

2 years

B

5 years

C

3 years

D

1 year

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Fee for franking machine license is 375 Rs. Renewal fee of FM license is 375 Rs. Renewal fees for expired license is 475 Rs.

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Question 4

#1554

Which of the following cannot be posted in letter box?

A

letter

B

inland letter card

C

Postcard

D

Registered news paper

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Machine franked articles posted in letter boxes shall be treated as unpaid articles.

Additionally, according to Post Office Guide Part 1 (Clause 142), "Newspapers posted in letter boxes are not admissible to the reduced rates of postage for registered newspaper."

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Question 5

#1555

The public are advised to use the minimum number of stamps while prepaying postage charges by using stamps of the appropriate _____ Denominations.

A

Higher

B

Lower

C

Same

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Use of Appropriate Higher-Denomination Stamps — The public are advised to use the minimum number of stamps by using stamps of appropriate higher denominations. Using a large number of low-value stamps unnecessarily occupies space on postal articles, leaving less room for the address and other indications. It also increases the workload of Post Office staff and causes wastage of stamp paper and printing charges.

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Question 6

#1556

What are the modes of payment of the postage or other sums chargeable for mail services?

A

Cash

B

Digital

C

Postage stamps

D

All of the above

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Postage charges can be paid by means of postage stamps, an impression of a franking machine, or in certain cases in cash. Modern updates also allow for digital payments.

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Question 7

#1557

Post Boxes are available on rent at certain Post offices as may be determined by the ______

A

Head of Division

B

Head of Region

C

Head of Circle

D

Gazetted Postmaster

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

"Post Boxes are available on rent at certain Post offices as may be determined in this behalf by the Head of Circle under the following conditions" (Post Office Guide Part 1, Clause 55).

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Question 8

#1558

What is rate of the postage chargeable on the delivery of unpaid official postal articles?

A

Pre-paid rate

B

Double the prepaid rate

C

Free

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

The postage chargeable on the delivery of official postal articles, when the postage is not prepaid or is insufficiently prepaid, is as follows: On an unpaid postcard, letter card, letter, or packet: the prepaid rate and on an insufficiently paid postcard, letter or packet: the deficiency.

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Question 9

#1559

Which of the following are prohibited for transmission by the Inland post?

A

which is sent in contravention of any enactment for the time being in force

B

Any indecent or obscene articles

C

Ticket, proposal or advertisement relating to a lottery

D

All of the above

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

"The transmission by the Inland post of the undermentioned articles is prohibited :- (1) Anything which is sent in contravention of any enactment for the time being in force. (2) Any indecent or obscene printing, painting, photograph, lithograph, engraving, book or card, or any other indecent or obscene articles... (7) Ticket, proposal or advertisement relating to a lottery..." (Post Office Guide Part 1, Clause 209).

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Question 10

#1560

Imported Postal article containing coin, bullion, precious stones, jewellery, article of gold or silver or other articles which are liable to customs duty ______

A

will not be transmitted until custom duty is paid

B

will be transmitted even if custom duty is not paid

C

will be destroyed

D

will be returned to sender

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

"Imported Postal article containing coin, bullion, precious stones, jewellery, article of gold or silver or other articles which are liable to customs duty will not be transmitted by post unless and until the customs duty payable has been paid." (Post Office Guide Part 1, Clause 212).

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Question 11

#1561

What is the compensation for delay in speed post-delivery?

A

speed post charges

B

Double the speed post charges

C

Rs 500

D

Rs 1000

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Delay - Speed Post charges.

Loss of article, pilferage or damage - Double the Speed Post charges or INR 1000 whichever is less.

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Question 12

#1562

What is the rate of penalty, if a bulk customer fails to make the payment of BNPL bill by due date?

A

10% per annum

B

12% per annum

C

15% per annum

D

20% per annum

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The BNPL bill will be prepared on a monthly basis (Calendar month) by the office of posting. The bill will be raised by 7th day of following month (bill date). The bulk customer shall pay the bill amount in full on or before last day of the month in which bill is raised.

In case the customer fails to make the payment by the due date, penalty at the rate of 12% per annum on the amount of the bill amount shall be imposed from the bill date.

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Question 13

#1563

If the COD value to be recovered from addressee is up to Rs 6500/- then what is the additional fee the sender shall be required to pay for transmitting postal article as Cash-on-Delivery (COD) article?

A

1.6% of CoD value to be recovered

B

1.5% of CoD value to be recovered

C

1% of CoD value to be recovered

D

2% of CoD value to be recovered

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

For Cash-on-Delivery (CoD) articles where the value to be recovered is up to Rs 6500/-, an additional fee of 1.6% of the CoD value is collected.

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Question 14

#1564

Which of the following is not true about Cash-on-Delivery (CoD) facility?

A

It provides collection upto Rs 50000/-

B

insurance is compulsory

C

Such articles do not contain coupons, tickets, certificates or introductions designed for the sale of goods on what is known as the Snowball System

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Insurance is not compulsory for all Cash-on-Delivery (CoD) articles unless their value exceeds specific departmental thresholds.

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Question 15

#1565

Maximum number of individuals that may be nominated as nominee in Post Office Savings Account is _____

A

4

B

3

C

2

D

1

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

According to the Post Office Savings Account rules, a maximum of 4 individuals may be nominated as nominees in a single Post Office Savings Account.

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Question 16

#1566

Which of the following statements is not correct about Post Office Savings Account?

A

only one account can be opened by an individual as a single account

B

account can be opened by minor who has attained the age of 10 years

C

There is no limit of maximum deposit

D

An account opened as a single Account can subsequently be converted into Joint Account

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

An account opened as a Single Account cannot be subsequently converted into a Joint Account or vice versa.

In case of death of any of Joint account holders, the surviving holder will be the sole owner, if surviving holder already has single account in his/her name then joint account must be closed.

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Question 17

#1567

What is the fee for cancellation or change in nomination in any account under Post Office Savings Scheme?

A

100

B

50

C

20

D

No fee

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The prescribed fee for the cancellation or change in nomination under the Post Office Savings Scheme is FREE. (Previously the fee was Rs. 50)

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Question 18

#1568

What is the correct statement about loan facility in Post Office Recurring Deposit account?

A

Loan amount is limited to 50% of deposit

B

Account should have been operational for at least one year

C

twelve monthly deposits should have been made in the account

D

All of above

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

In a Post Office Recurring Deposit account, a loan can be taken up to 50% of the deposit value, provided the account has been operational for at least one year and twelve monthly deposits have been made.

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Question 19

#1569

The investment under _____ TD qualifies for the benefit of section 80C of Income Tax Act, 1961.

A

5 years

B

2 years

C

1 year

D

3 years

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Investments made under the 5-Year Time Deposit (TD) scheme qualify for tax deductions under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

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Question 20

#1570

Retired personnel of Defence Services (excluding Civilian Defence employees) shall be eligible to open an account under Senior Citizens Savings Scheme on attaining the age of _____ years subject to the fulfilment of other specified conditions.

A

60

B

55

C

58

D

50

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Retired personnel of the Defence Services (excluding Civilian Defence Employees) are eligible to open a Senior Citizens Savings Scheme (SCSS) account upon attaining the age of 50 years, subject to fulfilling other specified conditions.

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Question 21

#1571

If SCSS account closed on or after 2 years, an amount equal to _____ of the deposit shall be deducted and the balance shall be paid to the account holder.

A

1%

B

1.5%

C

2%

D

2.5%

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Premature Closure of Account — The amount payable on premature closure depends on the period for which the account has remained open:

  • Before 1 year: No interest shall be payable. Any interest already paid shall be recovered from the deposit, and the balance shall be paid to the account holder.
  • After 1 year but before 2 years: An amount equal to 1.5% of the deposit shall be deducted, and the balance shall be paid to the account holder.
  • On or after 2 years: An amount equal to 1% of the deposit shall be deducted, and the balance shall be paid to the account holder.
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Question 22

#1572

Loan facility is available in Joint Life Assurance (Yugal Suraksha) under PLI after _____

A

2 years

B

3 years

C

4 years

D

5 years

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Loan Against PLI Policy — Loans are granted against the security of policies, subject to the policy being in force for the required period:

  • Endowment Policies: The policy must have been in force for at least 3 years.
  • Whole Life Policies: The policy must have been in force for at least 5 years.
  • Joint Life Assurance: It falls under the Endowment category and therefore requires 3 years of the policy being in force.
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Question 23

#1573

Which of the following PLI policy does not have surrender facility?

A

whole life Assurance

B

Endowment Assurance

C

Joint Life Assurance

D

Children Policy

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The Children Policy (Bal Jeevan Bima) under Postal Life Insurance does not have a surrender facility. Other standard policies like Whole Life and Endowment do permit surrender after the completion of minimum specific periods.

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Question 24

#1574

Which orders are issued by Superintendent RMS Division for prescribing changes in sorting lists?

A

'B' order

B

'A' order

C

Sorting order

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

" 'A' orders are orders issued by a Superintendent, RMS prescribing changes in sorting lists." (Postal Manual Vol V, Rule 46).

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Question 25

#1575

An _____ is used between a Sub Post office and its Head Post Office to enclose cash bags and articles, documents, etc, connected with accounts as well as correspondence unconnected with accounts, from the Head Post Office to one of its Sub-Post offices and vice versa.

A

Account Bag

B

Transit Bag

C

Mail Bag

D

Branch Office Bag

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

"An account bag is used between a sub-office and its Head Office to enclose cash bags and articles, documents, etc., connected with accounts as well as correspondence unconnected with accounts, from the Head Office to one of its sub-offices and vice versa." (Postal Manual Vol V, Rule 34).

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Question 26

#1576

Which statement is true about Transit Bag?

A

It must contain mail list

B

It is a due bag

C

Only the first

D

Both the first and the second

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

A transit bag is used to enclose several bags sent to the same office or section thereby affording protection to them, and securing the disposal in transit of only one bag in place of several. A transit bag must contain a mail list. Transit bags are due bags.

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Question 27

#1577

_____ is used to enclose several bags sent to the same office or section thereby affording protection to them, and securing the disposal in transit of only one bag in place of several.

A

Packet Bag

B

Transit Bag

C

Protecting Bag

D

Security Bag

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

"A transit bag is used to enclose several bags sent to the same office or section thereby affording protection to them, and securing the disposal in transit of only one bag in place of several." (Postal Manual Vol V, Rule 33).

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Question 28

#1578

Which of the following offices does not deal with any bags but only deals with the correspondence relating to procurement and distribution of bags?

A

District Bag Office

B

Circle Bag Office

C

Principal Bag Office

D

Central Bag Office

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

'D' Section of Postal Directorate works as Central Bag Office. This does not deal with any bags but only deals with the correspondence relating to procurement and distribution of bags.

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Question 29

#1579

Stationary office situated at the Headquarters of RMS Division which, in addition to the ordinary duties of a Record Office is entrusted with the preparation of salary and contingent bills for the entire Division and the accounts connected therewith is termed as _____

A

Head Record Office

B

Sub Record Office

C

Mail Office

D

Transit Office

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

"It is a stationary office situated at the Headquarters of RMS Division which, in addition to the ordinary duties of a Record Office is entrusted, with the preparation salary and contingent bills for the entire Division and the accounts connected therewith is termed a Head Record Office." (Postal Manual Vol V, Rule 17).

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Question 30

#1580

Office which does not exchange mails with the offices in foreign countries but in which the work of customs examination, assessment and accounting of customs duty is carried out is called _____

A

Foreign Post Office

B

Sub Foreign Post Office

C

Customs Office

D

Mail Office

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

"A 'Sub-Foreign Post Office' is an office which is not an exchange office (i.e., which does not close bags for other countries and which does not receive from foreign countries bags addressed it) but in which the work of customs examination, assessment and accounting of customs duty is carried out." (Postal Manual Vol V, Rule 13).

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Question 31

#1581

Which of the following imaginary line almost divides India into two equal parts?

A

Equator

B

Tropic of Cancer

C

Tropic of Capricorn

D

Arctic Circle

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer (23°30' N latitude) passes through the middle of India, roughly dividing it into two equal halves (Northern and Southern India).

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Question 32

#1582

Which one of the following is the place of confluence of the Alkananda and the Bhagirathi Rivers?

A

Vishnu Prayag

B

Karnaprayag

C

Rudraprayag

D

Devprayag

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

Devprayag is the sacred confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers. Beyond this point, the combined river is officially known as the Ganga.

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Question 33

#1583

Which house of Parliament is elected directly by the people?

A

Lok Sabha

B

Vidhan Sabha

C

Rajya Sabha

D

Vidhan Parishad

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

The Lok Sabha (House of the People) is the lower house of India's bicameral Parliament, where members are directly elected by the adult citizens of India.

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Question 34

#1584

What does Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantee?

A

Right to Property

B

Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression

C

Right to Religion

D

Right to Education

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees six fundamental freedoms, primarily the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression, to all its citizens.

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Question 35

#1585

Volcanic eruption does not occur in the _____

A

Baltic sea

B

Black sea

C

Caribbean-sea

D

Caspian-sea

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

Volcanic eruptions do not occur in the Baltic Sea because it is situated on a stable continental crust known as the Baltic Shield, which is located far from active tectonic plate boundaries.

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Question 36

#1586

The hottest planet in the solar system?

A

Mercury

B

Venus

C

Mars

D

Jupiter

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Venus is the hottest planet in the solar system due to a runaway greenhouse effect caused by its extremely thick atmosphere, which consists primarily of carbon dioxide.

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Question 37

#1587

During which movement did Mahatma Gandhi first use the term "Satyagraha" to denote his philosophy of nonviolent resistance?

A

Salt March

B

Kheda Satyagraha

C

Champaran Satyagraha

D

Quit India Movement

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi first used the tool of Satyagraha in India during the Champaran Satyagraha in 1917, fighting for the rights of indigo farmers.

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Question 38

#1588

Which Indian Academy is promoting dance, drama and music?

A

Sahitya Academy

B

Lalit Kala Academy

C

National School of Drama

D

Sangeet Academy

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

The Sangeet Natak Akademi (often referred to as Sangeet Academy) is the national-level academy set up by the Government of India for the promotion of performing arts, namely dance, drama, and music.

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Question 39

#1589

Ethics determines rightness and wrongness of ____

A

Human thoughts

B

Human actions

C

Human judgements

D

None of these

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

Ethics is a branch of moral philosophy that deals specifically with assessing and determining the rightness and wrongness of human actions and conduct.

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Question 40

#1590

Children learn moral values through _____

A

Active thinking

B

Reasoning

C

Both the first and the second

D

None of these

Correct answer keyC

Explanation

Children develop moral values comprehensively through both active thinking and cognitive reasoning as they interact with their environments and encounter moral dilemmas.

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Question 41

#1591

Solve the following: 20+30÷15×10÷10×(3)20+30\div15\times10\div10\times(-3)

A

14

B

07

C

21

D

05

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  1. Apply the BODMAS rule (Brackets, Orders, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction).

  2. Perform the division operations first from left to right:
    30÷15=230 \div 15 = 2
    10÷10=110 \div 10 = 1

  3. Substitute these results back into the expression:
    20+2×1×(3)20 + 2 \times 1 \times (-3)

  4. Perform the multiplication:
    2×1×(3)=62 \times 1 \times (-3) = -6

  5. Perform the final addition:
    20+(6)=1420 + (-6) = 14

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Question 42

#1592

Solve the following: {[(40+50÷5×6)×2]÷12}×100\{[(40+50\div5\times6)\times2]\div\frac{1}{2}\}\times100

A

40000

B

80000

C

200000

D

50000

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  1. Resolve the innermost parentheses first (40+50÷5×6)(40 + 50 ÷ 5 × 6):

    • Division: 50÷5=1050 \div 5 = 10
    • Multiplication: 10×6=6010 \times 6 = 60
    • Addition: 40+60=10040 + 60 = 100
  2. Resolve the square brackets:

    • 100×2=200100 \times 2 = 200
  3. Resolve the curly braces:

    • 200÷12=200×2=400200 \div \frac{1}{2} = 200 \times 2 = 400
  4. Finally, multiply by 100:

    • 400×100=40000400 \times 100 = 40000
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Question 43

#1593

Solve the following: A shopkeeper sells an item at Rs. 840 at a gain of 20% and another item for Rs. 960 at the loss of 4%. Find his total gain percent.

A

97/17%

B

98/17%

C

99/17%

D

100/17%

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

  1. Find the Cost Price (CP) of the first item:

    • SP = 840, Gain = 20%
    • CP1_1 = 840÷1.20=700840 \div 1.20 = 700
  2. Find the CP of the second item:

    • SP = 960, Loss = 4%
    • CP2_2 = 960÷0.96=1000960 \div 0.96 = 1000
  3. Calculate Total CP and Total SP:

    • Total CP = 700+1000=1700700 + 1000 = 1700
    • Total SP = 840+960=1800840 + 960 = 1800
  4. Calculate Total Gain and Gain Percentage:

    • Total Gain = 18001700=1001800 - 1700 = 100
    • Gain % = 1001700×100=10017%\frac{100}{1700} \times 100 = \frac{100}{17}\%
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Question 44

#1594

Solve the following: A man bought an article and sold it at a gain of 5%. If he had bought it at 5% less and sold it for Re 1 less, he would have made a profit of 10%. The C.P. of the article was _____

A

100

B

200

C

300

D

400

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

  1. Let the original Cost Price (CP) be xx.

    • Original Selling Price (SP) = 1.05x1.05x
  2. Determine the hypothetical scenario:

    • New CP = x0.05x=0.95xx - 0.05x = 0.95x
    • New SP = 1.05x11.05x - 1
  3. The profit in the new scenario is 10% on the New CP:

    • New SP = 1.10×(0.95x)=1.045x1.10 \times (0.95x) = 1.045x
  4. Equate the two expressions for New SP:

    • 1.05x1=1.045x1.05x - 1 = 1.045x
    • 0.005x=10.005x = 1
    • x=10.005=200x = \frac{1}{0.005} = 200
  5. The original CP of the article is 200.

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Question 45

#1595

Rahul took a loan of Rs. 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If he paid Rs. 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?

A

6%

B

3.6%

C

18%

D

None of above

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  1. Establish the known variables:

    • Principal (P) = 1200
    • Simple Interest (SI) = 432
    • Rate (R) = Time (T) = xx
  2. Use the Simple Interest formula:

    • SI=P×R×T100SI = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100}
    • 432=1200×x×x100432 = \frac{1200 \times x \times x}{100}
  3. Solve for xx:

    • 432=12x2432 = 12x^2
    • x2=43212=36x^2 = \frac{432}{12} = 36
    • x=6x = 6
  4. The rate of interest is 6%.

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Question 46

#1596

Solve the following: In the first 10 overs of a cricket game, the average run rate was only 3.5 per over, then what should be the run rate in the remaining 40 overs to reach the target of 275 runs?

A

6.0

B

6.50

C

6.75

D

7.0

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  1. Calculate runs scored in the first 10 overs:

    • Runs = 10×3.5=3510 \times 3.5 = 35 runs
  2. Determine the remaining runs required:

    • Target runs = 275
    • Required runs = 27535=240275 - 35 = 240 runs
  3. Calculate the required run rate for the remaining 40 overs:

    • Required Run Rate = 24040=6.0\frac{240}{40} = 6.0
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Question 47

#1597

Solve the following: A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 5 days, then the fraction of the work that is left is:

A

1/4

B

7/3

C

7/12

D

5/12

Correct answer keyD

Explanation

  1. Calculate the 1-day work for both A and B:

    • A's 1-day work = 1/151/15
    • B's 1-day work = 1/201/20
  2. Calculate their combined 1-day work:

    • (A+B)(A+B)'s 1-day work = 115+120=460+360=760\frac{1}{15} + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{4}{60} + \frac{3}{60} = \frac{7}{60}
  3. Calculate the work done in 5 days together:

    • Work done in 5 days = 5×760=3560=7125 \times \frac{7}{60} = \frac{35}{60} = \frac{7}{12}
  4. Calculate the fraction of work left:

    • Remaining work = 1712=5121 - \frac{7}{12} = \frac{5}{12}
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Question 48

#1598

Solve the following: 'A' alone can finish a piece of work in 70 days. 'B' is 75% more efficient than A. How many days will B alone take to finish the work?

A

40 days

B

39 days

C

38 days

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  1. Understand the efficiency ratio:

    • Let A's efficiency be 100%100\%.
    • Since B is 75%75\% more efficient, B's efficiency is 175%175\%.
    • Ratio of efficiency (A:B) = 100:175=4:7100 : 175 = 4 : 7
  2. Establish the relationship between efficiency and time:

    • Time taken is inversely proportional to efficiency.
    • Ratio of time taken (A:B) = 7:47 : 4
  3. Calculate the time taken by B:

    • Time taken by A = 7x=707x = 70 days (so x=10x = 10)
    • Time taken by B = 4x=4×10=404x = 4 \times 10 = 40 days.
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Question 49

#1599

Solve the following: Excluding stoppages, the speed of a bus is 54 kmph and including stoppages, it is 45 kmph. For how many minutes does the bus stop per hour?

A

9

B

10

C

12

D

20

Correct answer keyB

Explanation

  1. Determine the difference in distance covered in 1 hour due to stoppages:

    • Distance without stoppages = 54 km
    • Distance with stoppages = 45 km
    • Difference = 5445=954 - 45 = 9 km
  2. Find the time it takes to travel this 9 km gap at the original speed:

    • Time = DistanceSpeed=954\frac{\text{Distance}}{\text{Speed}} = \frac{9}{54} hours
    • Time in hours = 16\frac{1}{6} hour
  3. Convert this time into minutes:

    • 16×60=10\frac{1}{6} \times 60 = 10 minutes.
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Question 50

#1600

Solve the following: If the cost of X meters of wire is 'M' rupees, then find the cost of 'Y' meters of wire at the same rate.

A

MY/XMY/X

B

MX/YMX/Y

C

XY/MXY/M

D

None of the above

Correct answer keyA

Explanation

  1. Calculate the cost of 1 meter of wire using the unitary method:

    • Cost of XX meters = MM rupees
    • Cost of 1 meter = MX\frac{M}{X} rupees
  2. Calculate the cost for YY meters:

    • Cost of YY meters = Cost of 1 meter ×Y\times Y
    • Cost = MX×Y=MYX\frac{M}{X} \times Y = \frac{MY}{X}